[Openid-specs-risc] Should we handle indirect relationships?
Hardt, Dick
dick at amazon.com
Tue Nov 22 21:36:04 UTC 2016
So the AOL access is a Facebook login, correct?
Per your enterprise example below, yes, we should look at events that lead to the generation of new events. (propagation of events implies that Google is sharing a Slack event, which is NOT what we are saying)
I expect that with the deployment of RISC and other, advanced authentication features, that more enterprises would look to leverage Google to do their authentication.
/Dick
On 11/22/16, 1:30 PM, someone claiming to be "George Fletcher" <gffletch at aol.com<mailto:gffletch at aol.com>> wrote:
So I would answer that question as...
The user who owns the *@gmail.com account does have an account at AOL but they do so via Facebook. AOL would have the standard OAuth2 direct relationship with Facebook based on the Facebook user id (I'm assuming that's how that relationship would be established).
In the consumer case, it's possible to just rely on the direct relationships and trust that any implicit ones will propagate through the direct one in a timely manner.
So back to my example. If something happens at Google to *@gmail.com, then Facebook would get notified and if that triggers something at Facebook, AOL would get notified via the Facebook path. I do think it helps in this use case that Facebook is effectively acting as an IdP for the user (Facebook does an authentication).
The Enterprise example is a little more complicated because in that case there is only one entity that is authenticating the user because Google is delegating authentication to the enterprise IdP. Take an example where ACME Corp uses Google Apps but does it's own authentication, and an ACME Corp employee uses Google to log into Slack. Slack as an RP has a direct relationship with Google. Google has a direct relationship with ACME IdP. Should we again rely on propagation of events through the direct relationship paths?
Thanks,
George
On 11/22/16 4:15 PM, Hardt, Dick wrote:
George: does the *@gmail.com user have an account at AOL? Let’s assume that is the use case you are talking about. It is not clear how Facebook and AOL are going to learn they share a user. In the F2F we talked about direct relationships would proxy in same way for indirect relationships. Ie. AOL would share data with Google, and Facebook would share data with Google. If there is an event at Facebook that is shared with Google, then that may create an event at Google that would be shared with Facebook.
/Dick
On 11/22/16, 9:50 AM, someone claiming to be "Openid-specs-risc on behalf of George Fletcher" <openid-specs-risc-bounces at lists.openid.net on behalf of gffletch at aol.com><mailto:openid-specs-risc-bounces at lists.openid.netonbehalfofgffletch@aol.com> wrote:
Hi,
Given that at AOL we are a relying party to Google, Facebook, Yahoo,
Twitter, LinkedIn, etc. ... when a user logs in via Facebook with an
email address of *@gmail.com, should AOL subscribe at both Facebook and
Google? or just Facebook?
This is similar to the enterprise case we talked about in the F2F. In
that case it was someone logging in via Google with an identity that is
not authenticated by Google but rather by the owning enterprise domain.
Thoughts?
Thanks,
George
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